May 20, 2010/ PHILADELPHIA – With all the recent news of Arizona’s S.B. 1070 law, a Mexican being beaten and the Mexican president calling the law ‘racist’, does this mean that Mexicans are of a certain race?
Last I checked, Mexico is a country. Let’s switch countries around to see: So, if a Mexican police officer said, “I’m going to beat the f***ing American piss out of you, Homey! You feel me?” to an American, would that be racist?
Mexico and the United States were invaded and conquered by the Spaniards [Europeans]- remember, the conquistadors? The Spaniards beat the natives in what is now Mexico. The other Europeans [English] ‘invaded’ and beat the Spanish-Europeans and the United States is now what it is. (See below video):
Now we have the Mexican president, Calderon (which is a Spanish [European] surname), saying that the Arizona 1070 law is ‘racist’.
Once again, switch countries around to let’s say, Canada, which was also conquered by Europeans [French]. Would it be ‘racist’? No, that’s because Canada is just another country. (See video below):
Now, the United States’ people are made-up of mostly European decent, with Blacks making-up 13%. What part of Mexico is European?
In our minds, we have been trained to think of Mexicans as ‘Latinos’ – who came-up with this?
The Latin world, as we know it, is basically every single country south of the U.S. including many Caribbean, but not all, countries. Some Caribbean countries are almost all elusively Black. Are there any Blacks in Mexico? I haven’t seen any, minus tourists. At one point in time, c. 1570, Blacks outnumbered Spaniards 3:1 Brazil has many Blacks but not Mexico. Whatever happened to the Black Mexicans?
Reciprocating, if we call most countries’ people south of the U.S., ‘Latinos’ – what do the Latinos call the northern countries’ peoples?
It’s time we all recognize our true history.
And don’t forget, on these continents, both North and South, we are all Americans.
-Gary Goldfarb ©
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